In Romans chapter 1, why doesn't Paul write that the righteousness of God is revealed from Heaven in his wrath which he is planning to inflict on the godless (vs 18)? Instead, in the previous verse Paul writes that the righteousness of God is revealed in the gospel (vs 17). In fact, the righteousness which is spoken of there is the righteousness that is given to sinners for their salvation.
So in one verse, God is righteous to give righteousness to the undeserving and sinners, and in the next verse God is righteous to reveal his wrath against the godless who do not receive his righteousness.
But, just speaking from these two verses, the most exalted revelation of God's righteousness is in the righteousness by which he makes sinners righteous.
Reviewed and retained.
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